From: Adam Walker (carrajena@yahoo.com)
Date: Sat Apr 12 2003 - 11:53:51 EST
Does the ser/estar distinction exist in Romlangs beyond Iberia? Spanish has them. Portuguese does. So does Catalan, but the others don't do that, right? I don't think I want a similar distinction in C-a. What about the por/para distinction. How wide spread is that? I'm concidering a three way distinction on "for" -- peru/peu/para(or worse pera). I don't know why I'd do this to myself since por and para already drive me to distraction in Spanish, but I *am* concidering it. Maybe it's the cold medicine. Adam
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