Re: [romanceconlang] Tengo and Tenho

From: Barry Garcia (barry_garcia@csumb.edu)
Date: Wed Aug 07 2002 - 07:27:52 EST


romanceconlang@yahoogroups.com writes:
>Teneo -- 1st person singular indicative present of tenere.
>
>The Portuguese form is a pretty straightforward development from Latin.
>The
>unstressed /e/ would have ended up /j/, which palatalized the /n/.
>
>The Spanish form is more complicated. I just looked this up in _From
>Latin to
>Spanish_ to refresh my memory. According to that book, the -g- probably
>had
>something to do with verbs whose stems ended in -ng in Latin, such as
><frangere>. Apparently those verbs developed such that the first person
>singular had /ng/ but other forms had /nj/ because of the following front
>vowel. So:
>
>frango *franjemos
>*franjes *franjetes
>*franjet *franjent(maybe *frangont)
>
>According to the hypothesis, people began mixing up the /ng/ and /nj/
>forms
>of these verbs, sometimes saying /frango/ and sometimes */franjo/. Now at
>the same time there were verbs that ended in -/njo/ derived from Latin
>words
>ending in -/nio/ or -/neo/; since people vacilated on whether to say
>/frango/ or */franjo/, they extended that pattern to other -/njo/ verbs,
>yielding */tenjo/ alongside /tengo/. For some reason /tengo/ won out.
>
>Then there are words such as <valgo> and <salgo> whose /g/s might have
>been
>extended from there.

Ahh, one of the smaller things i hadn't yet looked at for Montreiano. I
think the verb form for both verbs like tener and valer will be as in
Portuguese, a palatalization;

tener > teño > teñio /teNjo/
valer > valio >vauio /vawjo/

A lot of the irregulars in Spanish make sense if you know the VL roots, or
understand sound change history. But for most people they don't make sense
;)

__________________________
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