From: habarakhe4 (theophilus88@hotmail.com)
Date: Sun Jun 08 2003 - 12:01:03 EST
The difference in Classic Fortunatian between
[t_S], [d_Z], [J], [S]
and
[t`], [d`], [n`], [s`]
is not wholly etymological, but instead is based on a sense of
formality. The former is used in daily speech, but the latter has an
archaic "Biblical" flair.
What I need to know is if this distinction can be described as
a "basilectal phonetic distinction". If not, what should I call it?
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