From: Padraic Brown (elemtilas@yahoo.com)
Date: Tue Apr 29 2003 - 12:24:27 EST
See previous answer and replace particulars as
necessary.
Why ask precisely the same question twice, and
using the Welsh example both times?
--- hotmyol <acz0605@cs.com> wrote:
> I've been wondering, what is it about Italic
> languages that sets them
> apart from other languages? At first I thought
> it had to do with the
> complicated spelling/pronunciation, but then I
> found that Welsh isn't
> complicated in that form. If you do not
> understand what I am
> asking, here is an example:
>
> West Germanic languages:
> Changes other indo-european words as such:
> p,t,k to f,th,h; b, d, g
> to p, t, k; bh, dh, gh to b,d,g. I.E. Latin
> pater became English
> father, L. mater=E. mother
>
>
>
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=====
Ories-si la Sulis couant goueniont y vathin, levont y vus des al trefoelea, levont y vrum
des y vagges; aie! mays couant levab-el il mew cords?
-- per tradicièn Quemrech
.
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